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In recent times, 1 man dead 1 injured in double shooting in southeast dc police say has become increasingly relevant in various contexts. abstract algebra - Prove that 1+1=2 - Mathematics Stack Exchange. Possible Duplicate: How do I convince someone that $1+1=2$ may not necessarily be true? I once read that some mathematicians provided a very length proof of $1+1=2$. In relation to this, can you think of some way to Why is $1/i$ equal to $-i$?

- Mathematics Stack Exchange. Additionally, 11 There are multiple ways of writing out a given complex number, or a number in general. Usually we reduce things to the "simplest" terms for display -- saying $0$ is a lot cleaner than saying $1-1$ for example. The complex numbers are a field. This means that every non-$0$ element has a multiplicative inverse, and that inverse is unique. In this context, what is the value of $1^i$?

There are infinitely many possible values for $1^i$, corresponding to different branches of the complex logarithm. In this context, the confusing point here is that the formula $1^x = 1$ is not part of the definition of complex exponentiation, although it is an immediate consequence of the definition of natural number exponentiation. Formal proof for $ (-1) \times (-1) = 1$ - Mathematics Stack Exchange. Is there a formal proof for $(-1) \\times (-1) = 1$? It's a fundamental formula not only in arithmetic but also in the whole of math. Building on this, is there a proof for it or is it just assumed?

factorial - Why does 0! Intending on marking as accepted, because I'm no mathematician and this response makes sense to a commoner. However, I'm still curious why there is 1 way to permute 0 things, instead of 0 ways. 知乎 - 有问题，就会有答案. Another key aspect involves, 知乎，中文互联网高质量的问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，于 2011 年 1 月正式上线，以「让人们更好的分享知识、经验和见解，找到自己的解答」为品牌使命。

Why is $1$ not a prime number? 49 actually 1 was considered a prime number until the beginning of 20th century. Unique factorization was a driving force beneath its changing of status, since it's formulation is quickier if 1 is not considered a prime; but I think that group theory was the other force. If $A A^{-1} = I$, does that automatically imply $A^{-1} A = I$?. This is same as AA -1.

It means that we first apply the A -1 transformation which will take as to some plane having different basis vectors. If we think what is the inverse of A -1 ? We are basically asking that what transformation is required to get back to the Identity transformation whose basis vectors are i ^ (1,0) and j ^ (0,1).